Questions For Exercise 1
1. What is meant by the "ubiquity" of microorganisms?
Microbes have global distribution and some are found in practically all
environments.
2. What two precautions are necessary in lab because of the ubiquity of
microbes? using aseptic technique in all transfers and minimizing exposure of
cultures to prevent contamination
3. Aseptic technique is used to prevent infection and contamination.
4. What are pathogens? microbes that cause disease
5. List two benefits derived from the microbes that live within and upon our
bodies. prevent colonization by pathogens & produce vitamins we absorb and use
6. How are bacterial colonies formed?
by division of an isolated bacterium & continued division of cell produced
7. How can different species of bacteria be distinguished by examining their
colonies? by color, shape and texture of colonies
8. How can growths of molds be distinguished from bacterial colonies?
produce wooly growths called mycelia rather than solid colonies
9. Is the amount of growth on the agar plate an exact representation of the
microbes present in the environment sampled? Explain.
no, probably some microbes present that are unable to grow on growth medium
used
10. Which area(s) appeared to contain the greatest number of microbes?
Explain why. table and mouth; with time surfaces accumulate many microbes
and mouth provides warmth, nutrients and moisture for microbial growth
11. Account for the lack of growth on the cough plate.
microbes inhaled stick to lining of respiratory passageways and are removed
12. What effect did washing have on the growth obtained from the fingers?
should have removed some microbes resulting in less growth
13. What types of microbes were isolated from the air in the laboratory?
bacteria and molds
14. 37 oC would be the optimum incubation temperature for those microbes
isolated from the mouth.
15. Why are petri plates inverted during incubation?
prevents moisture from accumulating on the top, and water dripping on
microbial growths spreading them on surface
Questions for Exercise 2
1. List four changes that occur when rotating from the 4X objective to the
100X objective.
a. object appears larger
b. diameter of the field decreases
c. working distance decreases
d. size of aperture of objective decreases requiring more light
2. List the function of the following parts of the microscope:
a. iris diaphragm regulates amount of light entering condenser & passing
through the object
b. condenser produces cone of light that illu8minates the object
c. coarse adjustment used to obtain the initial rough focus
d. fine adjustment used to obtain sharp focus
3. What is the advantage of the electron microscope over the light
microscope in examining microbes? provides greater resolution & total
magnification which permit observation of microbes less that 0.2΅m in diameter
and the study of small cell organelles
4. What is the magnifying power of most oculars? 10X
5. Define resolution and give the formula for determining it.
Definition diameter of smallest object that can be seen through the microscope
or smallest distance at which two adjacent objects ca be distinguished
formula - wavelength of light
2 X numerical aperture
6. Give the formula for calculating the total magnification.
T.M. = magnification of objective X magnification of ocular
7. What is the maximum resolution and maximum total magnification
possible with the microscopes available in the lab?
max. resolution 0.2 ΅m
max. total magnification 1,000X
8. Coarse adjustment can be safely used with which objectives?
4X and 10X
9. Which of the objectives has the longest working distance? Which has the
shortest working distance?
longest 4X
shortest 100X
10. If a slide were turned over so the specimen were on the lower surface,
with which objectives could it be seen clearly ( hint: consider the
thickness of the slide compared to the working distance of the objective ?
4X and 10X
11. What are parfocal objectives? objectives that have same focal length &
require same adjustments for focusing
12. List the steps in using direct oil immersion.
a. obtain sharp focus with 40X objective
b. rotate 40X objective out of position
c. add drop of oil to slide where light is passing through
d. rotate oil immersion objective into position
e. while looking through oculars, slowly turn fine adjustment knob to get sharp focus
13. Why is centering an object important when examining it under the
microscope? as you rotate to higher power objectives, the diameter of
microscope field gets smaller & object may be lost if at edge of the field
14. Which objectives require the greatest amount of light ? Why?
40X and 100X; because they have very small apertures (openings) for light to enter
15. List three ways to increase the brightness of the microscope field.
a. open iris diaphragm
b. raise condenser
c. rotate reostat (dimmer) knob
16. Briefly explain how oil immersion improves the resolution of the
microscope. It reduces loss of light due to refraction increasing numerical
aperture & resolution.
17. List the scientific term for the three common shapes of bacteria.
a. bacilli rods
b. cocci spheres
c. spirilla rigid spirals
18. What type of reproduction was observed in yeast? budding
19. How do bacteria, protozoa and yeast compare in size?
Protozoa are the largest , bacteria are the smallest, and the yeast are intermediate in size between the two.
20. Distinguish between the real image and the virtual image .
real image is produced by objective; virtual image is enlarged image produced
by oculars
Questions For Exercise 3
1. Give the scientific term for the three major shapes of bacteria and briefly
describe each.
a. bacilli rods or cylinders
b. cocci - spherical
c. spirilla rigid spirals
2. List the steps involved in aseptic transfer of bacteria.
a. sterilize transfer loop & its filament by passing it through flame until it glows orange
b. remove cap from culture tube & pass mouth of tube through flame
c. use sterile loop to remove sample from culture in tube
d. pass mouth of tube through flame & replace its cap
e. use microbes collected on loop
f. sterilize transfer loop & filament as before
3. What is a smear? thin suspension of microbes on microscope slide
4. Briefly explain how a suspension of bacteria is heat fixed.
It is passed through the flame slowly three times.
5. What happens during fixing? Microbes are killed and attached to the slide.
6. What is the term for the two types of ions that comprise a dye?
chromogen is ion that imparts color and auxochrome is colorless ion that
combines with chromogen to form salt
7. Explain the difference between acidic and basic dyes.
acidic dyes have negative (anionic) chromogens; basic dyes have positive
(cationic) chromogens
8. Are basic or acidic dyes used most often in staining microbes?
basic dyes
9. What type of chemical reaction occurs during positive staining?
ionic attraction and bonding
10. b dyes are used in the simple stain.
a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
11. List three characteristics of bacteria that can be determined by examining
a simple stain.
a. shape
b. size
c. arrangement of cells
12. Why are the microbes not stained in the negative stain?
negative chromogens are repelled by negative groups on & in bacteria
13. List two advantages of the negative staining technique.
a. enhanced contrast
b. actual shape not changed by heating
14. How can spirochetes be differentiated from spirilla ?
spirochetes are longer and have more coils
15. Why should a person examine the edge of a stain rather than the center of
it? microbes are farther apart and individual microbes can be
seen and examined
16. What is the purpose of wiping the surface of the lab desk with Lysol
solution before and after each lab?
to kill microbes accumulating since last lab that might contaminate cultures &
those accidently left behind that might cause infection in other people
17. In the b stain the bacteria are not fixed.
a. simple
b. negative
c. differential
Questions for Exercise 4
1. b The two dyes used in a differential stain are:
a. acidic d. both a & b
b. basic e. both b & c
c. neutral
2. List two major uses for differential stains.
a. to improve contrast between different parts of microbes
b. grouping and identifying microbes
3. List the two most commonly used differential stains.
a. Gram stain
b. acid-fast stain
4. What is the function of the decolorizer in a differential stain?
To remove primary dye from some microbes or areas of a single microbe
5. List the decolorizer in the following stains:
a. Gram stain 95% ethyl alcohol
b. acid-fast stain acid alcohol
c. spore stain - water
6. What is a mordant? chemical that enhances the microbes attraction for the dye
7. Grams iodine is the mordant used in the Gram stain.
8. In the space below, explain what happens in each step to gram-positive
cells and gram-negative cells:
gram-positive gram-negative
crystal violet colored blue colored blue__
iodine forms CV-I complex forms CV-I complex
95%ET OH CV_I remains (blue) CV-I removed (colorless)
safranin cells remain blue cells_stained red
9. Why are Gram-positive bacteria unaffected by the safranin?
the CV-I complex is still attached to groups to which safranin can bind
10. Explain the difference in the cell wall structure between Gram+ and Gram-
bacteria. Grampositive have cell walls containing peptidoglycan that retain
the CV-I complex; Gram-negative bacteria have cell walls containing
many lipids that are dissolved by the decolorizer removing the CV-I complex
11. Why is the smear heated during the initial step in the acid-fast stain?
to facilitate penetration of waxy cell walls of acid fast bacteria by the dye
12. Explain what happens in each step of the acid-fast stain below:
acid-fast nonacid-fast
carbolfuchsin stained red _stained_red _-__
acid alcohol remain red_____ _dye_removed (colorless)
methylene blue remain red stained blue
13. What property causes acid-fast bacteria to retain the primary stain?
waxy cell walls containing mycolic acids
14. List the medically important genus of acid-fast bacteria.
Mycobacterium
15. List two genera of bacteria which produce endospores.
a. Bacillus
b. Clostridium
16. What color do endospores stain? green
17. survival is the function of endospores.
18. What are flagella? long filamentous projections on surface of some microbes
19. What is the difference between amphitrichous (polar) and peritrichous
flagella? peritrichous flagella are located all around surface of bacteria; polar
flagella are located only at ends of bacteria
20. motility is the function of flagella.
21. poly-betahydroxybutyrate is the lipid commonly stored by bacteria.
22. What color do the lipid granules stored by bacteria stain? dark purple
23. inhibiting phagocytosis is the primary function of the capsule in
pathogenic bacteria.
24. What is the color of the capsule in the capsule stain? white
Questions For Exercise 5
1. What is a culture medium? nutrient suspension used to cultivate microbes
2. Explain what is meant by the following terms:
a. chemically defined medium - supplies minimal nutritional requirements for
some microbes and contains mainly salts & sugars
b. complex medium contains one or more complex organic nutrients
c. enriched medium contains complex medium plus plant or animal extract
3. Classify the following media as chemically defined, complex, or
enriched:
a. minimal agar chemically defined
b. glucose agar chemically defined
c. peptone agar - complex
d. yeast extract agar - enriched
4. Which of the media listed in #3 contains the least nutrients? Which
contains the most nutrients? least - Minimal agar; most - yeast extract agar
5. What specific nutrient(s) are supplied by peptone and yeast extract?
peptone organic nitrogen and organic carbon
yeast extract B vitamins
6. What is agar and how is it used in microbiological media?
polysaccharide from red algae used as a solidifying agent
7. For what purpose are enriched media used? cultivation of fastidious
heterotrophs
8. What is an autotroph? organism that can grow with CO2 as its only carbon
source
9. What is a heterotroph? organism that requires one or more organic
molecules to provide its carbon
10. Are most bacteria autotrophs or heterotrophs? hetrotrophs
11. List the six ingredients added to water to make glucose agar and give the
nutritional requirement(s) provided by each.
a. MgSO4 magnesium and sulfur
b. NaCl sodium & chlorine
c. NH4H2PO4 nitrogen & phosphorus
d. K2HPO4 potassium & phosphorus
e. glucose organic carbon
f. agar none ( solidifying agent)
12. Why didn't any of the three species grow on the minimal agar? It contained
no organic carbon and all were heterotrophs.
13. Which of the three species is the most fastidious? Streptococcus lactis
14. Which of the three species is the least fastidious? E coli
15. What is a buffer? solution that maintains a constant pH
a. What is the buffer system in the minimal agar? phosphate buffer
b. What molecules act as a buffer system in the peptone agar?
phosphates and amino acids
16. What is a selective medium? contains chemicals that inhibit growth of
some microbes allowing growth and isolation of others
17. What is a differential medium? contents allow visual distinction of various
groups of microbes due to unique type of growth or changes in the medium
18. Classify the following media as selective, differential, or both
(check their formulas), list the selective and differential ingredients in
each and briefly tell how each is used:
a. mannitol salt agar both; selective for halotolerant microbes due to 7.5%
NaCL and differential for mannitol fermentation due to mannitol & phenol red
(pH indicator)
b. EMB agar both; selective for Gram- bacteria due to eosin & methylene
blue dyes that inhibit Gram+ species
differential due lactose which is fermented & the dyes that detect different
amounts of acid produced
c. MacConkey agar both; selective for Gram- bacteria due to bile salts and
crystal violet that inhibit Gram+ species
differential due to lactose that is fermented and neutral red (pH indicator) that
detects acid produced
Questions For Exercise 6
1. What is a mixed culture? culture containing two or more species
2. What is a pure culture? culture containing only one species
3. Why is it important to learn methods for obtaining pure cultures?
samples taken from the environment or body often contain several species
and produce mixed cultures
4. What is the purpose of the streaking in the streak plate technique?
to reduce the number of bacteria so each will form an isolated colony
5. Why is the loop flamed between sections in the streak plate technique?
to kill bacteria on it further reducing the number of bacteria in the next section
6. Which of the streaking patterns was most effective in isolating colonies?
three-phase streak technique
7. Why can an isolated colony be used to prepare a pure subculture?
all cells in it came from same ancestral cell and are all members of same species
8. What type of medium is used in the enrichment culture technique?
chemically defined medium
9. Will both autotrophs and heterotrophs grow on this medium?
yes
10. List two characteristics of soil bacteria that are able to grow on nitrogen-
free mannitol agar. Fix nitrogen from air and utilize (ferment) mannitol as
carbon source
11. What is the major advantage of the enrichment culture technique?
isolation of microbes with ability to use a specific carbon source of which only a
few may be present
12. What is meant by "nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixer"?
bacteria capable of using nitrogen from air and live independently in soil
13. How was mannitol utilization detected in this experiment?
pH indicator, phenol red, turns yellow due to acid produced from mannitol
fermentation
14. What are cysts and which genus of soil bacteria produces them?
rounded thick-walled stages that are some what resisitant ; Azotobacter
15. What genera can be isolated from the soil using nitrogen-free mannitol agar?
Azotobacter and Azomonas